CMDA 026 Tests CMDA 026 ANATOMY MOCK PRETEST 6 1 / 50 The "hand of benediction" is a neurological sign associated with damage to a specific nerve. Which nerve is responsible for this sign? Median nerve Ulnar nerve Radial nerve Musculocutaneous nerve 2 / 50 The palmaris longus muscle is absent in a percentage of the population. Which nerve primarily innervates this muscle when present? Median Ulnar Radial Musculocutaneous 3 / 50 The anterior humeral circumflex artery and the posterior humeral circumflex artery are branches of which artery? Subclavian Brachial Axillary Radial 4 / 50 Which structure is located in the "quadrangular space" of the shoulder and is responsible for innervating the teres minor muscle? Axillary nerve Suprascapular nerve Subscapular nerve Radial nerve 5 / 50 The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of which major nerve in the upper limb? Ulnar Median Radial Musculocutaneous 6 / 50 The ulnar nerve innervates the intrinsic muscles of the hand. Which muscle is an exception and is innervated by the median nerve? Adductor pollicis Lumbricals Flexor pollicis brevis (deep head) Opponens pollicis 7 / 50 The "wrist drop" is a characteristic feature of damage to which nerve? Median Ulnar Radial Musculocutaneous 8 / 50 Which ligament stabilizes the head of the radius at the elbow joint, preventing its dislocation? Annular ligament Ulnar collateral ligament Radial collateral ligament Interosseus ligament 9 / 50 1. Which muscle is responsible for extending the forearm at the elbow joint and is innervated by the radial nerve? Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Brachialis Brachioradialis 10 / 50 1. The medial cutaneous nerve of the arm is a branch of which nerve? Ulnar Median Radial Musculocutaneous 11 / 50 1. Which muscle is responsible for adduction of the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint? Adductor pollicis Adductor pollicis brevis Opponens pollicis Adductor pollicis longus 12 / 50 True of the hamstring muscles except: Arise from ischial tuberosity Insert into linea aspera Receive blood from the profunda femoris artery Are innervated by the sciatic nerve Extend the hip joint during walking 13 / 50 The saphenous nerve Is a branch of the obturator Gives a branch to the scrotum Is closely related to the great saphenous vein in the upper thigh Is cutaneous to the medial side of the foot 14 / 50 The following bones enter the medial longitudinal arch of the foot except: Talus Calcaneus Navicular Cuboid Cuneiform 15 / 50 The femoral triangle is bounded by: Inguinal ligament, pectineus, sartorius Inguinal ligament, adductor longus, gracilis Inguinal ligament, rectus femoris, sartorius Inguinal ligament, adductor longus, sartorius 16 / 50 Which nerve is involved in Trendelenburg sign Inferior gluteal nerve Superior gluteal nerve Femoral nerve Pudendal nerve 17 / 50 Which nerve is involved in Trendelenburg sign Inferior gluteal nerve Superior gluteal nerve Femoral nerve Pudendal nerve 18 / 50 Which of the following is used in explosive movement/vertical jump? Gluteus Maximus Gluteus minimus Piriformis Gemellus 19 / 50 Contributes to cruciate anastomosis except Superior gluteal artery Inferior gluteal artery 1st perforating artery Medial circumflex femoral artery Lateral circumflex femoral artery 20 / 50 Which of the following muscles is known to flex both the hip and the knee joint Gluteus maximus Rectus femoris Sartorius Biceps femoris 21 / 50 A butcher's knife falls into his femoral sheath. The following structures may be damaged except Femoral nerve Femoral artery Femoral vein Genitofemoral nerve Femoral canal 22 / 50 Concerning the kidney, It lies at the level of T10 to L3 The right kidney lies at a slightly lower level than the left one due to the presence of liver on the right side. The left kidney is little nearer to the median plane than the right Their long axes are slightly oblique (being directed downward and laterally) so that their upper ends or poles are nearer to each other than the lower poles 23 / 50 About the pancreas, It is composed of an exocrine and endocrine part It spans from the right hypochondriac region just beside the liver across the epigastrium and to the left hypochondriac region. The greater part of the gland is retroperitoneal behind the serous floor of the lesser sac The head of the pancreas lies in the concavity of the C-shaped duodenal loop in front of the L2 vertebra 24 / 50 Concerning the liver It has one border, the anterior bpteder which separates the Diaphragmatic surface from the visceral surface On the visceral surface, it is divided into four lobes and two lobes on the Diaphragmatic surface. The caudate lobe is located below the porta hepatis and between the groove for the UVC and the fissure for the ligamentum venosum The liver develops from a diverticulum (hepatic bud) from The distal end of the foregut. 25 / 50 Concerning the stomach Its capacity at birth is 1000mls It has two ends, two curvature and two surfaces The lesser omentum runs from the lesser curvature to the liver D. The posteroinferior surface is also called the stomach bed 26 / 50 Concerning the abdominal part of the oesophagus It is 1.25 cm long The oesophageal opening is at the level of T10 Its right border becomes continuous with the lesser curvature of the stomach It has no systemic venous drainage 27 / 50 The following are impressions on the visceral surface of the spleen except Gastric impression Renal impression Colic impression Pancreatic impression Diaphragmatic impression 28 / 50 The number of bronchopulmonary segments in the middle lobe of the right lung 1 2 3 4 2-4 29 / 50 Concerning the two bronchi, the right is Shorter Wider More vertical More horizontal 30 / 50 At the level of the sternal angle Bifurcation of the pulmonary artery Upper border of the left atrium Bifurcation of the trachea Aortic valve Formation of the SVC 31 / 50 The mammary gland recieves arterial supply from the Circumflex humeral Intercostal Subclavain Internal thoracic 32 / 50 The CVS appears in which week 3rd 4th 5th 6th 33 / 50 The following structures are related to the mediastinal surface of the left lung except Left atrium Arch of aorta Descending aorta Phrenic nerve 34 / 50 The following are tranitred through the aortic opening except Aorta Phrenic nerve Thoracic duct Azygos vein 35 / 50 Mammary gland is a modified Sebaceous gland Endocrine gland Sweat gland Ectopic gland 36 / 50 Components of tetealogy of Fallot Obstruction of the right ventricular flow Ventricular septal defect Overriding aorta Atrial septal defect 37 / 50 The apex of the heart is usually located in Right 5th intercostal space midclavicular line Right 5th intercostal space anterior axillary line Left 5th intercostal space anterior axillary line Right 5th intercostal space posterior axillary line 38 / 50 Anal columns Are muscular thickening in the wall of the anal canal Contain the terminal branches of the inferior rectal veins Their inferior ends are joined by anal valves Their inferior ends form the pectinate line 39 / 50 With relating to ureters, They pass inferior to the uterine artery in females They pass about the ductus deferens in males All of the above None of the above 40 / 50 Which of the following is a derivative from the condensed pelvic fascia Pouch of Douglas Puboprostatic ligament Retropubic space Rectovesical septum 41 / 50 Which of the following structures is a derivative of the parietal membranous pelvic fascia Tendinous arch Prevesical space Pouch of Douglas Ano-coccygeal body 42 / 50 Regarding peritoneal reflections in the female pelvis, Broad ligament is one of its derivatives The ovaries is only suspended by peritoneum not covered by it Pouch of Doglas lies between the uterus and rectum and it is the lowest part of femal peritoneal cavity All of the Above 43 / 50 Regarding levator ani muscle, Tebdinuous plate is formed by the medial fibres of the pybococcygeus Pubococcygeus muscle has a communication with the fascia of midline structure. Puborectalis pulls the rectum anteriorly making an 80 degree angel in the ano-rectal opening All of the Above 44 / 50 The most common type of female pelvis is Android Genocide Anthropooid Platypelloid 45 / 50 Which statement is true? Inlet of pelvis is circular in male Female has a shallow and wider pelvis Sacrum is c shaped in females Subpubic angle is acute in male 46 / 50 All of the following are parts of the lateral pelvic wall except Piriformis muscle Obturator internus Sacrotuberpus ligament Sacrospinous ligament 47 / 50 Which of the following structures contribute to both the pelvic inlet and outlet Public symphysis Iliopectineal line Sacral promentary Ischiopubic rami 48 / 50 Capacity of the stomach in an adult is 500ml 300ml 700ml 1500ml 49 / 50 The diaphragm is NOT derived from which of the following? Septum transversum pleuroperitoneal membranes muscular components from lateral and dorsal body walls Anterior thoracic fascia 50 / 50 Which of the following does NOT pass through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm? Oesophagus branches of the left gastric vessels lymphatic vessels lesser thoracic splanchnic nerve Your score is The average score is 56% 0% Restart quiz /30 19 This quiz contains 30 Questions. Go with God's grace! CMDA 026 PHYSIO 2nd Test 1. Identify the false statement A) About 90% of filtered potassium is reabsorbed at the PCT B) The in and out movement of Na is balance by the simple diffusion of Cl C) Over 85% of filtrate are reabsorbed in the PCT D) Reabsorption of Na in the layers part of the distal tubule is influenced by aldosterone 2. Concerning the absorption of solutes, A) The thin LOH does not reabsorb sodium B) The transport maximum is defined as the limit to the rate at which carrier mediated substance is transported C) The renal threshold of a substance is the plasma concentration at which it first appears in urine D) AOTA 3. Concerning urine and urine production, A) Glomerular filtration is the initial stage in urine formation B) Volume and composition of urine is static C) 300ml of urine is the obligatory minimum amount required to remove waste from the body D) Tubular secretion is the addition of substance to the filtrate 4. Which of these factors does not affect renal blood flow A) Nature of the glomerular membrane B) Constriction of renal artery C) Filtration pressure D) Size of the capillary bed 5. About GFR, A) It is the volume of fluid that is filtered across the capillary membrane per minute B) Inulin clearance is used to measure the GFR C) Its normal value is about 125ml/min D) If a substance is filtered but not present in urine, then the clearance is 100 6. Identify the correct statement A) Cortical nephrons comprise about 85% of the nephrons in the kidney B) The Cortical nephrons are important in the countercurrent system for urine concentration C) The Bowman’s capsule and proximal convoluted tubule form the Malphigian corpuscle D) The glomerular membrane carries a net positive charge due to the presence of collagen and proteoglycans 7. Concerning the anatomy of the kidney, A) The outer region is called the cortex B) The medulla is composed of 8-15 mounds of tissue called renal calyces C) The renal pelvis is a continuation of the upper end of the ureter D) The ureter carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder 8. About edema, A) It is an abnormal expansion of ISF volume B) Increase in venous pressure causes an increase in hydrostatic pressure which leads to edema C) It is seen in the terminal stages of kwashiorkor D) Liver disease causes loss of protein in urine 9. Concerning dehydration A) It is described as a significant decrease in body water B) Iso-osmotic dehydration is caused by a loss of isotonic fluid C) Hypo-osmotic dehydration is caused by decreased water intake D) In Hyper-osmotic dehydration, protein dehydration increases because of loss of ECF volume 10. Identify the false statement A) All fluid compartments are in Osmotic equilibrium B) Tonicity is used to describe the osmolality of a solution relative to plasma C) Osmolality of plasma is 500 mOsm/l D) NOTA 11. Concerning the phases of secretion, A) Cephalic phase occurs after food enters the stomach due to neurological signals. B) The cephalic phase is a conditioned reflex C) The gastric phase accounts for two thirds of the secretion D) Gastrin is secreted during the gastric phase 12. Select the correct statement A) A BMI greater than 25kg/m² is defined as obesity B) Thermostatic theory proposes that the level of ghrelin controls food satiety C) CCK is secreted by the stomach in response to food ingestion D) In bulimia, there are episodes of uncontrolled eating followed by episodes of vomiting. 13. In Achalasia, A) Food accumulates in the lower oesophagus B) It is caused by a damage to the Auerbach plexus C) Infection of the food in the oesophagus can cause erosion of the mucosa D) AOTA 14. As regards GI disorders, A) In Achalasia, there is failure of the LES to relax on swallowing B) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome can lead to gastric ulcer C) In pernicious anaemia, there is a deficiency of Vitamin B9 D) Chronic gastritis can progress to Gastric atrophy 15. Identify the false statement A) In Hartnup disease, there is malabsorption of basic amino acids. B) After ingestion of a high protein diet, there is an increase in free amino acid pool in the portal blood C) Protein that appear in stool are not of dietary origin D) Thyroxine increases glucose absorption 16. Concerning digestion and absorption of protein A) Proteins are digested by enzymes into amino acids and polypeptides B) Digestion of protein doesn’t occur in the mouth C) Digestion of proteins is completed in the small intestine D) AOTA 17. About digestion and absorption, A) Digestion of carbohydrates starts from the small intestine B) Pancreatic amylase is the major enzyme involved in the digestion of carbohydrates. C) Sucrose is acted on by sucrase to give glucose and galactose D) Carbohydrate digestion is completed in the large intestine 18. Concerning the heart sounds A) The first heart sound is associated with closure of the AV valves B) The second heart sound is associated with closure of the semilunar valves C) The 3rd heart sound is only heard in pathological conditions D) The fourth heart sound is associated with atrial contraction 19. Concerning heart rate and its regulation, A) Sympathetic nervous system cause vasoconstriction and a consequent increase in heart rate B) Parasympathetic input to the heart is via the vagus nerve C) Binding of acetylcholine to the M2 receptors on the heart causes a positive chonotropic response and a negative inotropic response D) Parasympathetic impulse to the heart predominates at rest 20. Identify the correct statement A) Cardiac output is directly related to the afterload B) Cardiac output is directly relayed to heart rate independent of other factors C) Arterioles are also called resistance vessels D) Maximum peripheral resistance is offered at the periphery 21. All these cause an increase in cardiac output except A) Hypothyroidism B) Hyperthyroidism C) Fever D) Pregnancy 22. Concerning cardiac output, A) It is defined as the amount of blood pumped into the aorta each minute B) The normal value is 70ml C) It is represented mathematically by the equation CO= HR× SV D) AOTA 23. Changes that occur after birth include A) The lungs start functioning after the umbilical cord is cut B) The cutting of the placenta causes hyperoxia and hypercapnia C) A fall in right atrial pressure causes closure of the foramen ovale D) Failure of closure of the ductus arteriosus is called patent ductus arteriosus 24. In fetal heart structure, A) The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the foetus B) The ductus venosus allows blood from the placenta to bypass the liver C) The foramen ovale creates a shunt between the right atrium and the left atrium D) The umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood from the placenta to the foetus 25. Select the false statement A) Necrosis is irreversible B) Cardiac pain is referred to the right arm C) Cardiac pain is the pain caused by myocardial ischaemia D) During myocardial ischaemia, there is accumulation of anaerobic metabolites 26. Concerning blood flow, A) Increase in blood viscosity decreases blood flow B) Increase in hydrogen ion causes an increase in cerebral blood flow C) Decreased oxygen tension is the most important factor for the regulation of blood flow D) Hypoxia causes increased blood flow by vasodilation 27. Identify the false statement A) The ability of the heart to depolarize is dependent on the sympathetic nervous system B) The SA node is the cardiac pacemaker C) Electric current generated in the SA node are spread through the atrium and then to the ventricles D) The cells of the conduction system are non contractile 28. About the heart, A) The heart muscle behaves as a functional syncytium B) Intercalated discs allow the free passage of ions C) The vagus nerves gives parasympathetic supply to the heart D) AOTA 29. Concerning heart failure, A) It is defined as inability of the left heart to meet the metabolic demands of the body B) Systemic hypertension is an important cause C) Excess afterload leads to hypertrophy of the affected ventricle D) Excess preload leads to ventricular dilation 30. About shock, A) Hypovolemic shock is caused by a reduction in blood volume B) Vasogenic shock is caused by widespread dilation of blood vessels C) Cardiogenic shock can arise from myocardial infarction but not arrhythmias D) The aim of treatment of shock is to relieve physiologic compensatory mechanisms Your score is The average score is 50% 0% Restart quiz
