CMDA 027 Tests CMDA 027 Gross Anatomy Test 1 / 42 1. Capacity of the stomach in an adult is A) 500ml B) 300ml C) 700ml D) 1500ml 2 / 42 2. The diaphragm is NOT derived from which of the following? A) Septum transversum B) pleuroperitoneal membranes C) muscular components from lateral and dorsal body walls D) Anterior thoracic fascia 3 / 42 3. Which of the following does NOT pass through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm? A) Oesophagus B) branches of the left gastric vessels C) lymphatic vessels D) lesser thoracic splanchnic nerve 4 / 42 4. The sympathetic nerve supply of the stomach arises from which of the following cord segments? A) T1-T5 B) T6–T9 C) T6–T12 D) T10–L2 5 / 42 5. The lacunar ligament is formed by? A) Falciform ligament B) Round ligament C) Rectus sheath D) Inguinal ligament 6 / 42 6. Between the internal oblique and transverse abdominal muscles is a neurovascular plane that contains all of the following EXCEPT A) iliohypogastric nerve B) deep circumflex iliac artery C) inferior epigastric artery D) ilioinguinal nerve 7 / 42 7. The two medial umbilical folds represent remnants of which of the following structures? A) Urachus B) Umbilical arteries C) Umbilical veins D) Ductus venosus 8 / 42 8. All of the following structures are located within the rectus sheath EXCEPT A) Pyramidalis B) Rectus abdominis C) inferior epigastric arteries and veins D) deep inguinal ring 9 / 42 9. Where is extraperitoneal fat located? A) between the abdominal oblique muscles B) deep to the parietal peritoneum C) superficial to Camper’s fascia D) deep to the transversalis fascia 10 / 42 10. The inferior margins of the lungs correspond with which rib at midclavicular line? A) 5th rib B) 6th rib C) 7th rib D) 8th rib 11 / 42 11. The arch of the aorta is crossed by the following structures except A) Left phrenic nerve B) Left vagus nerve C) Left superior intercostal vein D) Left brachiocephalic vein 12 / 42 12. The base of the heart is formed by A) Left atrium B) Left ventricles C) Right atrium D) Right ventricle 13 / 42 13. About the superior mediastinum? A) Thymus B) Great vessels and their branches C) Azygos and hemiazygos veins D) Trachea 14 / 42 14. Which of the following does NOT supply the breast with blood? A) lateral thoracic artery B) thoracoacromial artery C) posterior intercostals arteries D) costoclavicular artery 15 / 42 15. The mammary glands are modified versions of which type of gland? A) Sebaceous gland B) Lymph gland C) Sweat gland D) Tonsillar tissue 16 / 42 16. Which of the following is a saddle-type synovial joint? A) sternoclavicular joint B) manubriosternal joint C) interchondral joint D) Intervertebral joint 17 / 42 17. Which of the following is a special feature of a thoracic vertebra? A) foramen for vertebral artery B) dens for rotation C) short spinous processes D) Costal facets on bodies 18 / 42 18. All of the following statements correctly apply to the right atrium EXCEPT A) It receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sinus. B) It forms the right side of the heart. C) It contains the crista terminalis. D) It contains trabeculae carneae. 19 / 42 19. All of the following statements correctly applyto a bronchopulmonary segment EXCEPT A) It is separated from adjacent segments by connective tissue septa. B) It is the largest subdivision of a lobe. C) It is not resectable. D) It is named according to the segmental bronchus supplying it. 20 / 42 20. All of the following statements correctly apply to the right lung EXCEPT A) The superior and oblique fissures divide it into three lobes. B) It is larger and heavier than the left lung. C) It is shorter and wider than the left lung. D) It contains a thin, tongue-like process called the lingula. 21 / 42 21. All of the following statements correctly apply to the left main bronchus EXCEPT A) t is wider, shorter, and runs more vertically than the right main bronchus. B) It passes anterior to the esophagus. C) It passes anterior to the thoracic aorta. D) It contains c-shaped rings of hyaline cartilage. 22 / 42 22. Which of the following statements correctly apply to the internal thoracic artery? A) It runs posterior to the transversus thoracis muscle. B) It ends in the 6th intercostal space. C) It divides into the superior and inferior epigastric arteries. D) It gives rise to the posterior intercostal arteries. 23 / 42 23. Which of the following statements concerning the sternal angle is correct? A) It lies at the level of the intervertebral disk between T4 and T5 B) It is flanked by the costal cartilage of the 3rd pair of costal cartilages. C) It is crossed by the superior epigastric artery. D) It lies in the epigastric fossa 24 / 42 24. The articular part of a rib tubercle articulates with which of the following structures? A) body of the vertebra B) Costal cartilage C) Sternum D) Transverse process 25 / 42 25. “Winging” of the scapula is most likely caused by which of the following? A) A lesion to the long thoracic nerve B) a lesion to the thoracodorsal nerve C) injury to the suprascapular nerve D) damage to the dorsal scapular nerve 26 / 42 26. A patient tries to make a fist, but digits 2 and 3 remain partially extended. What nerve is injured? A) Ulnar nerve B) Radial nerve C) Median nerve D) Axillary nerve 27 / 42 27. The axillary nerve A) leaves through the quadrangular space B) winds round the surgical neck of the humerus. C) injury leads to paralysis of deltoid muscle D) injury leads to paralysis of teres major muscle 28 / 42 28. Concerning deep palmar arch A) is formed by the anastomosis of the terminal part of the radial artery with deep branch of the ulnar artery B) is formed by the anastomosis of the terminal part of the ulnar artery with deep branch of the radial artery C) lies superficial to the tendons of flexor muscles D) gives off three common palmar digital arteries 29 / 42 29. The deep branch of radial nerve perforates A) flexor carpi radialis B) pronator quadratus C) supinator D) trilateral foramen 30 / 42 30. The cephalic vein A) receives the superficial veins of the hand and the medial side of the forearm B) arises from the medial side of dorsal venous rete of hand C) runs along the lateral side of the biceps brachii. D) drain into the brachial vein 31 / 42 31. Injury to which nerve can lead to wrist drop? A) Musculocutaneous B) Median C) Radial D) Ulnar 32 / 42 32. The axillary artery A) begins from the medial border of the ist rib B) gives off the internal thoracic artery C) its branches distribute to the pectoralis major muscle oy D) gives off the anterior intercostal artery. 33 / 42 33. Injury to which nerve can lead to ape hand? A) musculocutaneous nerve and median nerve B) median nerve and ulnar nerve C) ulnar nerve and axillary nerve D) axillary nerve and radial nerve 34 / 42 34. Which of the following is correct regarding the triangle of auscultation? A) Its borders are the latissimus dorsi, scapula, and trapezius. B) It is a good location to hear heart murmurs. C) The 8th and 9th ribs and the 8th intercostal space are subcutaneous here. D) It is a location for dorsal rami to pass to 35 / 42 35. Which of the following is derived from the radial artery? A) dorsal and palmar carpal arteries B) common interosseous artery C) anterior interosseous artery D) posterior interosseous artery 36 / 42 36. A patient is unable to flex the arm and forearm. ventral rami of C3–C4Where is the lesion likely to be? A) ventral rami of C3–C4 B) ventral rami of C5–C6–C7 C) dorsal rami of C6–C7–C8 D) ventral rami of C8–T1 37 / 42 37. The cubital fossa does NOT contain which of the following? A) terminal part of the brachial artery B) Ulnar nerve C) Median nerve D) Biceps brachii tendon 38 / 42 38. Which of the following is true regarding the quadrangular space? A) It is bounded superiorly by the teres major. B) It is bounded inferiorly by the subscapularis and teres minor. C) It is bounded medially by the humerus and laterally by the long head of the triceps. D) It contains the posterior circumflex humeral artery and the axillary nerve 39 / 42 39. A patient is asked to abduct the arm 90 degrees and then to extend the flexed forearm against resistance. Which muscle is being tested? A) Brachialis B) Triceps brachii C) Coracobrachialis D) Biceps brachii 40 / 42 40. Which rotator cuff muscle does NOT rotate the humerus? A) Supraspinatus B) Infraspinatus C) Teres major D) Teres minor 41 / 42 41. A patient is asked to place the hands posteriorly on the hips and to push the elbows posteriorly against resistance. Which muscle is being tested? A) Levator scapulae B) Rhomboid C) Trapezius D) Latissimus dorsi 42 / 42 42. All of the following are medial rotators of the arm except A) Latissimus dorsi B) Teres major C) Subscapularis D) Infraspinatus Keep calm, you'll get what you deserve 😄 Your score is The average score is 54% 0% Restart quiz 52 CMDA 027 Embryology Test 1 / 24 1. The cells responsible for testosterone production are A) Primary spermatocytes B) Sertoli cells C) Secondary spermatocytes D) Interstitial cells of Leydig 2 / 24 2. The number of chromosomes is halved during A) Division of primary oocytes to form secondary oocytes B) Division of secondary oocytes to form ova C) Maturation of primary oocyte D) Multiplication of spermatogonia 3 / 24 3. The total number of germ cells in ovary by the fifth month of IUL is A) 3 million B) 5 million C) 7 million D) NOTA 4 / 24 4. During meiosis, one primary oocyte gives rise to A) Four daughter cells B) Four nuclei C) One daughter cell D) One polar body 5 / 24 5. Implantation begins approximately days after fertilization. A) 3 days B) 5 days C) 6 days D) 7 days 6 / 24 6. The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle begins approximately_____ daysfrom ovulation under the influence of progesterone. A) 1-2 B) 2-3 C) 3-4 D) NOTA 7 / 24 7. Primordial follicle is formed in a female at A) 4th month B) 5th month C) 6th month D) 7th month 8 / 24 8. The total number of germ cells reaches its maximum number in human female at A) 3rd month B) 4th month C) 5th month D) 6th month 9 / 24 9. In human the period of spermatozoa conditioning or capacitation is A) 24 hours B) 48 hours C) 72 hours D) 78 hours 10 / 24 10. Primary spermatocytes undergo meiotic development and become secondary spermatocytes after being in prophase for A) 84 days B) 64 days C) 20 days D) 22 days 11 / 24 11. Most human developmental changes are completed at A) Birth B) Adolescence C) Puberty D) 18 years 12 / 24 12. During ovulation, the secondary oocyte resides at what specific stage of meiosis? A) Prophase of meiosis I B) Prophase of meiosis II C) Metaphase of meiosis I D) Metaphase of meiosis II 13 / 24 13. Where do primordial germ cells initially develop? A) In the gonads at week 4 of embryonic developme B) In the yolk sac at week 4 of embryonic development C) In the gonads at month 5 of embryon development D) In the yolk sac at month 5 of embryonic development 14 / 24 14. When does formation of primary spermatocytes begin? A) During week 4 of embryonic life B) During month 5 of fetal life C) At birth D) At puberty 15 / 24 15. All primary oocytes are formed by A) week 4 of embryonic life B) Month 5 of fetal life C) Birth D) Month 5 of infancy 16 / 24 16. Which of the following describes the number of chromosomes and amount of DNA in a gamete A) 46 chromosomes, 1N B) 46 chromosomes, 2N C) 23 chromosomes, 1N D) 23 chromosomes, 2N 17 / 24 17. A normal somatic cell contains a total of 46 chromosomes. What is the normal complement of chromosomes found in a sperm? A) 22 autosomes plus a sex chromosome B) 23 autosomes plus a sex chromosome C) 22 autosomes D) 23 autosomes 18 / 24 18. Which of the following is a major characteristic of meiosis I A) Splitting of the centromere B) Pairing of homologous chromosomes C) Reducing the amount of DNA to IN D) ) Achieving the diploid number of chromosomes 19 / 24 19. The fertilized ovum is completely implanted in the endometrium by the end of the day after fertilization A) Third B) Seventh C) Fourteenth D) Twenty first 20 / 24 20. The usual number of days between fertilization and the commencement of implantation is A) Three B) One C) Six D) Ten 21 / 24 21. The spermatozoon is viable within the female genital tract for A) One hour B) Four hours C) Eight hours D) Four days 22 / 24 22. The ovum is surrounded by a non cellular secreted layer known as the A) Corona radiata B) Theca folliculi C) Zona pellucida D) Cumulus oophorus 23 / 24 23. Following ovulation, the ovum is viable for A) One hour B) Twenty four hours C) Three days D) Four days 24 / 24 24. .The chromosomal formula of the oocyte at ovulation A) 44 autosomes and 2X chromosomes B) 44 autosomes and 2Y chromosomes C) 22 autosomes and 1Y chromosome D) 22 autosomes and 1 X chromosome Your score is 0% Restart quiz 212 CMDA 027 Test Histology 1 / 30 1) 30. Which of these cells cannot divide A) A. Osteoblast B) B. Osteoclast C) C. Osteocyte D) D. Osteoprogenitor cell 2 / 30 2) 29. Fibrocartilage seen in A) A. Ligament B) B. Intervertebral disc C) C. Trachea D) D. Pinna 3 / 30 3) 28. Elastic cartilage seen in A) A. Ligament B) B. Intervertebral disc C) C. Tendons D) D. Larynx 4 / 30 4) 27. Epithelium found in the conjunctiva A) A. Transitional B) B. Stratified keratinized squamous C) C. Simple cuboidal D) D. Stratified columnar 5 / 30 5) 26. Epithelium found in the trachea A) A. Simple cuboidal B) B. Ciliated pseudostratified C) C. Transitional D) D. Stratified Columnar 6 / 30 6) 25. Epithelium found in the vagina A) A. Simple cuboidal B) B. Stratified non keratinized squamous C) C. Simple Columnar D) D. Stratified keratinized squamous 7 / 30 7) 24. What tissue processing technique adheres cover slip to slide to protect tissue from abrasive forces A) A. Mounting B) B. Wax impregnation C) C. Embedding D) D. Sectioning 8 / 30 8) 23. Which of these tissue processing methods removes alcohol A) A. Fixation B) B. Clearing C) C. Hydration D) D. Sectioning 9 / 30 9) 22. The following are tissue processing methods except A) A. Fixation B) B. Clearing C) C. Hydration D) D. Wax impregnation 10 / 30 10) 22. Reticular fibres are made of what kind of collagen fibers A) A. Type I B) B. Type II C) C. Type III D) D.Type IV 11 / 30 11) 21. Components of the connective tissue includes all except A) A. Cells B) B. Fibers C) C. Ground substance D) D. NOTA 12 / 30 12) 20. Which of the following apical modifications of the epithelium exhibit a rapid beating pattern A) A. Villi B) B. Cilia C) C. Microvilli D) D. Pseudovilli 13 / 30 13) 19. Which of these is false concerning myelin sheath A) A. It is produced in both the PNS and CNS B) B. It is a fatty material that covers the axon C) C. It protects and insulates the nerve cells D) D. It decreases the transmission of nerve impulses 14 / 30 14) 18. In the PNS, myelin sheath is produced by A) A. Astrocytes B) B. Schwann cells C) C. Oligodendrocytes D) D. Dendrites 15 / 30 15) 17. In the CNS, myelin sheath is produced by A) A. Astrocytes B) B. Schwann cells C) C. Oligodendrocytes D) D. Dendrites 16 / 30 16) 16. Which of these is false about the nerve cell body A) A. It is the Focal point for the outgrowth of nerve processes B) B. It contains an axon hillock C) C. Centrioles are present D) D. Presence of prominent basophilic Nissl bodies 17 / 30 17) 15. Which of the following is not a function of the axon A) A. Generates action potential B) B. Transmits action potential C) C. Secretes neurotransmitters from the axon terminals D) D. Movement in axons occur only in one direction 18 / 30 18) 14. In the CNS myelinated fibers are called A) A. Nerves B) B. Processes C) C. Tracts D) D. Nissl bodies 19 / 30 19) 13. Metabolic centre of the nerve cell is A) A. Axon B) B. Dendrites C) C. Schwann cells D) D. Cell body 20 / 30 20) 12. . The diameter of the capillaries is A) A. 7 micrometer B) B. 6 micrometer C) C. 8 micrometer D) D. 9 micrometer 21 / 30 21) 11. Sinusoids can be seen in the following except A) A. Carotid body B) B. Pancreas C) C. Liver D) D. Spleen 22 / 30 22) 10. Terminal arterioles are arterioles less than A) A. 70 micrometer B) B. 60 micrometer C) C. 50 micrometer D) D. 40 micrometer 23 / 30 23) 9. Elastic artery include A) A. Radial B) B. Ulnar C) C. Subclavian D) D. Brachial 24 / 30 24) 8. What layer of an artery prevents undue stretching or distension of the artery A) A. Tunica entera B) B. Tunica media C) C. Tunica intima D) D. Tunica adventitia 25 / 30 25) 7. Deficiency in what vitamin leads to the thinning and fragility of the epiphyseal plates predisposing one to fracture A) A. A B) B. B C) C. C D) D. D 26 / 30 26) 5. What cell secretes the bone matrix A) A. Osteoclast B) B. Osteoblast C) C. Osteiod D) D. Osteocyte 27 / 30 27) 4. Cancellous bone are found more in the A) A. Metaphysis B) B. Epiphysis C) C. Diaphysis D) D. Lamella 28 / 30 28) 3. Bone matrix is made up of what type of collagen A) A. Type I B) B. Type II C) C. Type III D) D. Type IV 29 / 30 29) The lacunae of osteocytes are connected by A) A. Ruffled border B) B. Canaliculi C) C. Lamella D) D. Mesenchyme E) E. Endosteum 30 / 30 30) 1.Which of these is known as the bone resorbing cell A) A. Osteoblast B) C. Osteoclast C) B. Osteoprogenitor cells D) D. Osteocyte E) E. Bone matrix Your score is The average score is 70% 0% Restart quiz /25 0 votes, 0 avg CMDA 027 Zoology and Environmental Biology Test NamePhone Number 1 / 25 1. Which of the following is not a hard tick? A) Amblyoma B) Haemaphysalis C) Aponomma D) Ornithodoros E) Boophilus 2 / 25 2. Which of these is a chewing lice? A) Jigger B) Anoplura C) Pediculus D) Gnat E) NOTA 3 / 25 3. Concerning P. falciparum A) Schnuffners dot B) Recrudescences C) Malignant tertian D) Sequestration E) Infect erythrocytes of any age 4 / 25 4. Strongyloides sp is a good example of A) Accidental parasite B) Hyper parasite C) Facultative parasites D) Proliferous parasites E) NOTA 5 / 25 5. The following are physiological adaptation of parasites except? A) Immune evasion B) Production of enzyme C) Production of anti-enyzme D) NOTA E) AOTA 6 / 25 6. Mallophaga has how many antenna segments? A) 5 B) 4 C) 3 D) 2 E) 1 7 / 25 7. The protein coat that encloses the nucleic acid genome of a virus is called? A) Nucleocapsule B) Nucleocapsid C) Viron coat D) Capsid E) Capsule 8 / 25 8. The agent of aetiology for Rickettisial pox? A) R. akari B) R. africae C) R. conorii D) R. quintana E) R. rickettis 9 / 25 9. Pinworm is also called A) Trichuris trichuria B) Oxyuris C) Ascaris sp D) Strongyloides sp E) Nematodes americanes 10 / 25 10. Cerebral malaria is a complication of? A) P. falciparum B) P. vivax C) P. Ovale D) P. malariae E) NOTA 11 / 25 11. The reservoir host for relapsing fever is? A) Louse B) Tick C) Man D) A and B E) NOTA 12 / 25 12. Which of the nematode is the odd one out in terms of treatment? A) Pinworm B) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Threadworm D) Ancylostoma duodenale E) Trichuris sp 13 / 25 13. Which of the following is the odd one out in terms of life cycle? A) Schistosoma sp B) Paragonimus sp C) Fasciola sp D) Leucochloridium sp E) NOTA 14 / 25 14. Diphyllobothrium latum is also known as? A) Board tapeworm B) Fish tapeworm C) Dwarf tapeworm D) Pork tapeworm E) A and B 15 / 25 15. Which of the following is ineffective in prevention of poliomyelitis? A) Appropriate healthcare B) Community and personal hygiene C) Vaccination D) Quarantine E) NOTA 16 / 25 16. Viruses which produce eruptions or rashes on the skin are called? A) Exanthem B) Exantem C) Enantem D) Evident E) Eczemous 17 / 25 17. The most striking common lesion of HSV-1 is? A) Gingivitis B) Keratoconjunctivitis C) Eczema herpeticum D) Exanthemitis E) Koplik's spot 18 / 25 18. Rabies virus produce a specific cytoplasmic inclusion called? A) Rose spots B) Peyers patches C) Ghon focus D) Negri body E) Myelinitis 19 / 25 19. The vaccine type preferably administered to immunodeficient individuals in poliomyelitis prophylaxis is? A) Sabin type B) Toxoid type C) Killed virus D) Live-attenuated type E) Recombinant type 20 / 25 20. Fleas belong to what order? A) Lepidoptera B) Siphonaptera C) Dictyoptera D) Diptera E) Hymenoptera 21 / 25 21. Which of these nematodes is of the most significance and economic importance in this country? A) Wuchereria bancrofti B) Onchocerca volvolus C) Loa loa D) Drancunculus medinensis E) Whipworm 22 / 25 22. The vector of Leishmania braziliensis is? A) Lutzomyia sp B) Phlebtomus sp C) Brazilis sp D) Phormia regina E) G. Morsitans 23 / 25 23. The category of myasis in which the fly maggot dwell in the host's intestine is called? A) Facultative myiasis B) Intestinal myiasis C) Traumatic myiasis D) Accidental myiasis E) Enteric myiasis 24 / 25 24. The vector of Murine typhus to man is? A) Pediculus typhi B) Xenopsylia cheopsis C) Pediculus humanus D) R. Tsutsugamushi E) Muscidae 25 / 25 25. Venomous stinging insects belong to what order? A) Lepidoptera B) Coleoptera C) Dictyoptera D) Diptera E) Hymenoptera Your score is The average score is 52% 0% Restart quiz /81 22 CMDA 027 BIO 154, PHY 114 and BIO 152 This examination contains BIO 154, PHY 114 and BIO 152 God's grace. 1 / 81 1. Gram stained smear is usually observed with____objective A) X40 B) X60 C) X80 D) X100 2 / 81 2. Which of the following bacteria is curved rod in shape A) Bacillus B) Bordetella C) Vibrio D) Escherichia 3 / 81 3. Which of the following bacteria is spiral in shape A) Treponema B) Listeria C) Leuconostoc D) Pediococcus 4 / 81 4. Hanging drop examination is used to examine A) Brownian motion B) Osmosis C) Diffusion D) Motility 5 / 81 5. Which of the following is not a test for lipid A) Solubility test B) Grease spot test C) Saponification D) Bleaching test 6 / 81 6. Which of these is not a class of lipids in human physiology A) Phosphatides B) Sterols C) Sterol esters D) NOTA 7 / 81 7. One of these is a major reagent for xanthoproteic acid test A) Conc H2SO4 B) Dilute H2SO4 C) Conc .HNO3 D) Dilute HNO3 8 / 81 8. The product of saponification test include the following except A) Sodium salt B) Glycerol C) Potassium salt D) None of the above 9 / 81 9. Carbohydrates exhibit the chemical properties of the following compounds except A) Alcohol B) Aldehyde C) Ketone D) NOTA 10 / 81 10. In the Ninhydrin test for protein, which of the following conditions will not affect the result A) pH of the buffer B) Temperature C) Age of reagent D) NOTA 11 / 81 11. ________Is an example of the amino acid tested for in million's test A) Cysteine B) Tyrosine C) Arginine D) NOTA 12 / 81 12. Buthus imperator is the botanical name for A) Scorpion B) Bees C) Termites D) Woodlouse 13 / 81 13. Millipede belongs to family A) Insecta B) Arachnoidae C) Eudrilidae D) Pachybolidae 14 / 81 14. Which of the following is an example of neutral stain A) Safranin B) Methylene blue C) Ziehl-Neelsen D) Giemsa 15 / 81 15. The following are acidic stain except A) Carbol fuchsin B) Acid fuschin C) Eosin D) Congo red 16 / 81 16. In a basic stain where is the colouring portion found A) Acidic portion B) Base C) A and B above D) NOTA 17 / 81 17. What is the correct description of Escherichia coli A) Spiral B) Rod shaped cell with flagella C) Irregular shaped cells D) Rod shaped 18 / 81 18. Which of the following bacterial species have cocci in regular packets of eight cells? A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Sarcina ventriculi C) Escherichia coli D) Bacillus anthracis 19 / 81 19. Mosses and liverworts belong to the phylum A) Pteridophyta B) Angiosperms C) Funaria D) Bryophyta 20 / 81 20. The following are true about mosses except? A) Spores are produced by sporophyte in a capsule B) The gametophyte is anchored by filamentous rhizoids C) Presence of true roots ,stems and leaves. 21 / 81 21. i) Power is the amount of energy used by an electrical appliance.ii) Suppose that three identical resistors with a resistance of 3-ohms are placed in series with a 12-Volt battery. The electric potential difference across each resistor is 12 Volts. A) i) ia correct, ii is incorrect B) ii) is correct but i) is incorrect C) both are correct D) both are wrong 22 / 81 22. Which has more resistance: 100W bulb or 60W bulb? A) 100 B) 60 C) both are same D) cannot be compared 23 / 81 23. A stepup transformer has transformation ration5:3. What is voltage in secondary if voltage in primary is 60V A) 100 B) 180 C) 60 D) 20 24 / 81 24. In storing magnets, keepers are used to A) reduced self-demagnetization B) cancel the effect of the earth's magnetic field C) protect the magnet from stray electricfield D) increase the strength of the magnets 25 / 81 25. The leakage flux of a toroid is less because It is A) assymetrical B) straight core C) open loop center D) symmetrical 26 / 81 26. A magnetic field of 0.0014T exists at the center of a circularcoil of radius 0.2m has 15 closely wound turns. Find the current in the coil(u=4π×10^-7Hm) A) 0.3 B) 30 C) 3 D) NOTA 27 / 81 27. The angle of declination at a place is the angle A) Between the vertical plane and the geographical meridian B) Between the vertical plane and the magnetic meridian C) Between the geographical meridian and the magnetic meridian D) Between the geographical meridian and the horizontal plane 28 / 81 28. Biot Savart' law of magnetism is analogous to? A) coloumb B) lenz C) faraday D) locomotive 29 / 81 29. (a) As a positve charge moves in the same direction as an electric field, it gains electric potential.The electric potential difference between two points is simply the difference in potential energy possessed by charge between those two points.(b) Which of the following is correct about the statements above? A) a. is correct, b. is correct B) a. is correct, b is wrong C) b. is wrong, a is wrong D) b. is correct, a is wrong 30 / 81 30. As the mass number A increases, which of the following quantities associated with the nucleus remain unchanged A) mass B) volume C) density D) binding energy 31 / 81 31. If a charged particle kept at rest experiences an electromagnetic force, then?i). E-field must not be zeroii) B-field must not be zeroiii) B-field may be zero A) i only B) ii only C) iii only D) i and iii only 32 / 81 32. Which of the following gives rise to the line spectra observed in atoms? A) K.E. of the moving photo-electrons B) Transition from one energy level to another C) Interaction of the nucleus with electrons D) nuclear force 33 / 81 33. Which of the following particles will experience maximum magnetic force when projected with the same velocity perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field? A) electron B) positron C) proton D) Li++ 34 / 81 34. a. As a positve charge moves in the same direction as an electric field, it gains electric potential.b.The electric potential difference between two points is simply the difference in potential energy possessed by charge between those two points.Which of the following is correct about the statements above? A) a. is correct, b. is correct B) a. is correct, b is wrong C) b. is wrong, a is wrong D) b is correct, a is wrong 35 / 81 35. The amount of charge passed through through a cross section of a wire in time t is given byQ(t)=At^2+St+CWhat is the dimensional formula for A, B and C? A) A = I t-¹ B = I C = i t B) A = I t-¹ B = I C -¹= i t C) A = I t¹ B = I C = i t D) A = I t-¹ Bt = I C = i t 36 / 81 36. When the separation between two charges is increased, the electric potential energy of the charges? A) increase B) decrease C) constant D) may increase or decrease 37 / 81 37. What is the De-Broglie wavelength of an electron which has a velocity of 3x10^7 m/s?take planks constant =6.6x10^-34J.s, mass of electron = 9.11x10^-31kg. A) 2.70E-12 B) 3.4E--16 C) 6.50E+35 D) NOTA 38 / 81 38. What is the age in years of an archaeological bone which has a count rate of 15 counts/min as compared to a fresh bone with a count rate of 19 counts/min? A) 1554years B) 1898years C) 34509years D) 3845 years 39 / 81 39. In a meter bridge experiment a balance point was obtained on the 45cm mark on the wire corresponding to a resistance R when a resistance of 20Ω was connected to the other arm of the bridge. Find the value of R A) 23.47 B) 16.4 C) 189.77 D) 674.7 40 / 81 40. An average induced emf of 20V appears in a coil when the current in it is changed from 5A in one direction to 5A in the opposite direction in 0.20s. Find the self inductance of the coil. A) 0.2 B) 0.4 C) 0.9 D) 700 41 / 81 41. Which of the following statements is/are correct?i) Kirchhoff’s junction rule follows from the law of conservation of chargeii) Kirchhoff’s loop rule follows from conservative nature of electric fieldiii) Kirchhoff’s loop rule follows from conservation of energ A) i and iii B) ii and iii C) i only D) AOTA 42 / 81 42. The non-existence of magnetic monopoles is a physical implication of one of the A) gauss B) faraday C) lenz D) ampere E) Maxwell ampere 43 / 81 43. The net resistance of a voltmeter should be large to ensure that? A) it does not get overheated B) it does not draw excessive current C) it can measure large PD D) it does not appreciably change the PD to be measured 44 / 81 44. Identify the correct statement(s).(i) strong nuclear force is responsible for binding molecules together to form solids.(ii) Coulomb’s force is used to explain the structure of nuclei of atoms.(iii) Gauss’s law can be used to explain the concept of charge induction in neutral bodies. A) i only B) ii only C) iii only D) NOTA 45 / 81 45. 17 grams of 57Co kept in an open container undergoes beta decay with a half life of 270 days.The weight of the material inside the container after 540 days will be very nearly? A) 17g B) 35g C) 8.5g D) 20g 46 / 81 46. Calculate the arithmetic mean speed of O2 molecules at -20°C. A) 155m/s B) 317m/s C) 409m/s D) 600m/s 47 / 81 47. The virus that causes measles is a A) DNA virus B) RNA virus C) Mixed virus D) NOTA 48 / 81 48. What lymphocytes produce antibodies A) B B) T C) E D) Z 49 / 81 49. Which of the following is not associative A) Azospirillum B) Herbaspirillum C) Azoracus D) Rhizobium 50 / 81 50. What year was Azotobacter chroococum discovered A) 1900 B) 1901 C) 1902 D) 1800 51 / 81 51. Which of these are types of vaccines A) Killed B) Attenuated C) Toxoid D) All of the Above 52 / 81 52. Which of these is not a probiotic A) Palp B) Yoghurt C) Vit D D) sauerkraut 53 / 81 53. Which of these lobes control muscle control A) Occipital B) Parietal C) Temporal D) Frontal 54 / 81 54. Which of these terms is specific to water alone A) Biodilution B) Bioaccumulation C) Bioncentration D) Biofiltration 55 / 81 55. The most common rhesus condition is A) Null B) Negative C) absent D) positive 56 / 81 56. Amphibian heart has A) 2 ventricle and 1 atria B) 2 atria and 1 ventricle C) 2 ventricle and 2 atria D) 1 atria and 1 ventricle 57 / 81 57. The chamber with the thickest wall is A) Right atrium B) Left ventricle C) Left atrium D) The walls of the heart have equal thickness 58 / 81 58. FSH is produced in the A) Anterior Pituary gland B) Posterior pituary gland C) Uterus D) Ovaries 59 / 81 59. Corpus luteum is found in the A) fallopian tube B) Ovaries C) Uterus D) NOTA 60 / 81 60. Outermost layer of gut is A) Serosa B) Mucosa C) Adventitia D) Submucosa 61 / 81 61. Bacteria in gut of herbivore is A) Symbiotic B) Mutualistic C) Commensalic D) Saprophytic 62 / 81 62. Which nervous system is fight or flight A) Parasympathetic B) Sympathetic C) Autonomic D) Reflex 63 / 81 63. Best method of transformation is A) Bacterium mediated B) Without tissue culture C) Viral D) Electrophoresis 64 / 81 64. Types of mutation is/are A) Gene mutation B) Point mutation C) Chromosomal mutation D) A and C 65 / 81 65. DNA is replicated in A) Qo phase B) M phase C) S phase D) NOTA 66 / 81 66. Which one is not found in the structure of the DNA? A) Phosphate B) Uracil C) Thymine D) None of these 67 / 81 67. Bean is a A) Follicle B) Legume C) Capsule D) Samara 68 / 81 68. What is rheotropism? A) Response to resistance B) Response to fluctuations C) Response to water current D) Response to Wave motion 69 / 81 69. which of these is not automatic? A) Nyctinasty B) Epinasty C) Nutation D) NDTA 70 / 81 70. What paper detects transpiration? A) Cobalt bromide B) Litmus C) Cobalt chloride D) Asphalt 71 / 81 71. Which of these equations is correct A) D.P.D -0.P=T.P B) D.P.D = 0.P – T.P C) D.P.D =0.P+ T.P D) A and ß 72 / 81 72. Osmotic Pressure A) Is the force that favours osmosis B) Is the force opposing Osmosis C) Is the force that favours conc. Gradient D) None of the above 73 / 81 73. What percent of water is in seeds? A) 3 B) 18 C) 10 D) 2 74 / 81 74. How many types of RNA do we have? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 75 / 81 75. What is the shape of the DNA called? A) Double spiral B) Circular C) Spiral D) Double helix 76 / 81 76. Which of the following is not a nucleic acid? A) Amino acid B) DNA C) RNA D) None of these 77 / 81 77. What is the second law of thermodynamics? A) Energy can be created or destroyed B) Entropy moves towards the negative C) Entropy moves towards the positive D) Total heat of a system lost is zero 78 / 81 78. Enzyme responsible for converting pectin into pectic acid is: A) Pectinase B) Proto-peclinase C) Pectic Methyl Esterase (PME) D) Poly Galucturonase 79 / 81 79. which of these is not an enzyme group A) Oxidoreductase B) Ligase C) Lyase D) Hydrase 80 / 81 80. Enzyme structure was by A) Albert Einstein B) Sir David Phillips C) Frederick Kuhne D) Hannah Montana 81 / 81 81. zymogen is A) Enzyme poison B) Enzyme modulator C) Enzyme precursor D) Enzyme inhibitor Your score is The average score is 36% 0% Restart quiz 4 CMDA CHEM 112 and CHEM 122 1 / 81 1. The intermolecular force between permanent and induced dipoles is called A) Induction force B) Dipole-dipole interaction C) Hydrogen bonding. D) London-Dispersion forces E) NOTA 2 / 81 2. 18g of glucose (C6H12O6) is dissolved in 1kg of water in a saucepan. At what temperature will the water boil? Kb (ebullioscopic constant) for water is 0.52. A) 382.526K B) 373.052K C) 391.012K D) NOTA 3 / 81 3. At room temperature (25°C), the rms speed of the molecules of a certain diatomic gas is found to be 1930 m/s. The gas is A) Hydrogen gas B) Fluorine gas C) Oxygen gas D) Chlorine gas 4 / 81 4. Calculate the molality of a 1 litre solution of 93% H2SO4. The density of solution is 1.84. A) 10.43 B) 20.36 C) 12.05 D) 14.05 5 / 81 5. A collision is said to be effective if the colliding particles have energy that isGreater than the activation energyEqual to the activation energyLess than the activation energyFar less than the activation energy A) I only B) I and II only C) II and III only D) I, II and III only. 6 / 81 6. Degree of dissociation of an acid is 0.25, and its ka value is 0.075, calculate the concentration of the acid. A) 0.23 B) 0.45 C) 0.73 D) 0.54 E) NOTA 7 / 81 7. Reaction is at equilibrium when ∆G is A) Positive B) Unity C) Negative D) Zero 8 / 81 8. A first order reaction has a halflife of 5 minutes. What percentage must have reacted under 50 minutes? A) 90.07% B) 9.93% C) 34.43% D) 26.4% 9 / 81 9. The molality of a solution is defined as number of moles of A) Solute in 1g of solvent B) Solvent in 1000g of solution C) Solute in 1000 g of solvent D) Solute in 1000g of solution. 10 / 81 10. The solubility product of Ag2CrO4 (silver chromate) is 9.0×10-¹¹. Calculate its solubility in water. A) 1. 823×10-² B) 1.823×10-⁴ C) 1.823×10-³ D) 1.823×10-⁶ 11 / 81 11. Calculate in mol/dm³, the molarity of a solution prepared by dissolving 150g of sodium carbonate in 500g of water. A) 2.83 B) 28.3 C) 0.283 D) 0.2 12 / 81 12. An isolated system is enclosed by A) Adiabatic walls B) Intensive walls C) Permeable walls D) Impermeable walls 13 / 81 13. If the volume occupied by 1 mol of oxygen at -20°C and 60 atm is 350cm³, calculate the compressibility factor A) 0.08 B) 1.012 C) 253 D) 0.9 E) NOTA 14 / 81 14. According to Avogadro's law, the volume of a gas will… … .with… … .if… … ….. .are kept constant. A) Increase, number of moles, Pressure and temperature B) Decrease, number of moles, pressure and temperature C) Increase, temperature and pressure, number of moles D) Decrease, pressure and temperature, number of moles. 15 / 81 15. Gases deviate from ideal behavior at A) Dilute solution B) Ideal solution C) Moderate temperature D) High temperature 16 / 81 16. Which of these is true about the molecular speed distribution curve?The probability that a molecule has its speed between any 2 values is given by the area covered above the graph A) Many molecules have very high and very low speeds. B) The curves are parabolic at the peak. C) The probability of having a zero speed is zero. D) The relative shape of the speed distribution in the graph is dependent on the temperature. 17 / 81 17. Calculate the arithmetic mean speed of O2 molecules at -20°C. A) 317m/s B) 155m/s C) 409m/s D) 600m/s 18 / 81 18. The following are intensive properties except A) Pressure B) Specific heat C) Enthalpy D) Density 19 / 81 19. Calculate the partial pressures of oxygen and nitrogen in the atmosphere, given that air contains 21% O2 and 78% N2 by volume. Barometric pressure is 746mmHg A) 581.88mmHg, 156.66mmHg B) 481.27mmHg, 273.23mmHg C) 428.13mmHg, 287.56mmHg D) 156.66mmHg,581.88mmHg 20 / 81 20. Unit of Van der Waals constant 'a' is A) atm L² mol-² B) atm L-² mol-² C) atm L mol-¹ D) atm mol L-¹. 21 / 81 21. Which of the following are substances with critical temperature above room temperature? A) H2O B) SO2 C) AOTA D) NOTA 22 / 81 22. During an isothermal expansion, the change in internal energy of an ideal gas is: A) Positive B) Negative C) Zero D) Cannot be determined 23 / 81 23. What of these is true A) Nitrogen is can be liquefied by compression only B) Water vapor can be liquefied by compression only. C) AOTA D) NOTA 24 / 81 24. The critical temperature is usually higher for substances with: A) Strong intermolecular forces B) Weak intermolecular forces C) No intermolecular forces D) It does not depend on intermolecular forces 25 / 81 25. Which of these is false A) Below critical temperature, water exists as a vapour B) The temperature below which gases can expand to produce cooling is called the inversion temperature. C) Liquids cannot diffuse. D) Most inversion temperatures are above room temperature. 26 / 81 26. The number of independent chemical species necessary to describe composition of each and every phase of system is A) No. of phases B) No. of components C) No. of degrees of freedom D) NOTA 27 / 81 27. One of these is a path function A) Entropy B) Free energy C) Heat D) Internal energy 28 / 81 28. Change in internal energy for a cyclic process is 0 A) True B) False 29 / 81 29. The number of gram-formula weights of solute in 1 litre of solution is called A) Molarity B) Formality C) Normality D) Molality 30 / 81 30. Which is not a formula for Van der Waals constant A) N.m⁴ mol-² B) Pa.m⁶ mol-² C) Atm.dm⁶ mol-² D) Atm.litre² mol-² E) NOTA 31 / 81 31. Which of these cannot effect volume changes in an gaseous equilibrium reaction occuring in a vessel. A) Changing concentration of a gaseous component B) Adding an inert gas C) Changing the volume of the reaction vessel D) NOTA 32 / 81 32. Among the 3 major disturbances to equilibrium, the only one that alters the equilibrium constant is A) Change in concentration B) Change in pressure C) Change in temperature. D) NOTA 33 / 81 33. Pick the correct optionsLavoisier and Laplace law states that the heat of decomposition is numerically equal to heat of formation, but of opposite sign.Heat of solution= Lattice energy + solvation energy.Heat of formation of a compound is the heat evolved or absorbed on reaction by its constituent elements.Hess law is a direct consequence of the first law of thermodynamics. A) I, II only B) I, III only C) I, III, IV only D) I, II, III, IV. 34 / 81 34. Which of these is false about the graph of the compressibility factor (Z) of methane as a function of pressure A) Z<1 indicates gas is less compressible than an ideal gas B) All gases show a minimum in the graph in sufficiently low temperatures. C) In the limit of zero pressure, Z is unity for every gas. D) NOTA 35 / 81 35. Value of compressibility factor for an ideal gas is A) <1 B) 1 C) 0 D) >1 36 / 81 36. Which term accounts for intermolecular forces in Van der Waals equation for non-ideal gases? A) RT B) (V-b) C) (P + a/v²) D) (RT)-¹ 37 / 81 37. If the mole fraction of glucose and water in a given solution at 25°C are 0.022 and 0.978 respectively, calculate the new lowered vapour pressure of water at 25°C and 23.8mmHg. A) 23.28mmHg B) 23.82mmHg C) 0.52mmHg D) 0.25mmHg 38 / 81 38. Which of these pairs diffuses at a slower rate than CO2 A) H2 / He B) SO3 / SO2 C) N2 / CO D) N2O/C3H8. 39 / 81 39. In a given mixture of non reacting gases, ratio of partial pressure of each gas equals its A) Weight B) Volume C) Mole D) Critical pressure 40 / 81 40. Which is wrong according to the Kinetic theory of gases? A) Average kinetic energy of molecules is directly proportional to absolute temperature. B) All molecules in a gas have the same Kinetic energy C) Collisions between molecules are perfectly elastic D) Pressure is due to the impact of molecules on the walls of the containerr 41 / 81 41. Which factors are considered in deviation to real gases? A) High temperature and low pressure B) Low temperature and low pressure C) Low temperature and high pressure D) High temperature and high pressure 42 / 81 42. Find the new volume of the gas, when the kelvin temperature and pressure of a fixed amount of gas is doubled. A) Twice its original volume B) ½ its original volume C) ¼ its original voluume D) NOTA 43 / 81 43. At 127°C, a vessel has a certain gas. At the same pressure, to what temperature must be heated so that half of the gas escapes? A) 600°C B) 627°C C) 527°C D) 800°C 44 / 81 44. At a given temperature, kinetic theory of gases postulates that A) All molecules have the same average speed B) All molecules have the same average kinetic energy C) Lighter molecules have higher average kinetic energy D) Lighter molecules have lower average kinetic energy. 45 / 81 45. The volume of gas is … … … when the pressure is reduced to half, and the absolute temperature is doubled. A) Doubled B) Quadrupled C) Tripled D) NOTA 46 / 81 46. What is the free energy change ∆G,when 1 mole of water at 100°C and 1 atm pressure is converted into steam at 100°C and 1 atm pressure A) 540cal B) -9800cal C) 9800cal D) 0 cal. 47 / 81 47. For vaporization of water at 1 atm, values of ∆H and ∆S are 40.63KJ/mol and 108.8 JK-¹ respectively. The temperature when Gibbs free energy for this transformation will be 0 is A) 273.4K B) 393.4K C) 373.4K D) 293.4K 48 / 81 48. Who proposed the concept of a base being a substance whose molecule or ion can accept a proton? A) JN. Bronsted B) Arrhenius C) GN. Lewis D) NOTA 49 / 81 49. Phase rule is represented by A) F = C + P -2 B) F = C-P-2 C) F = C-P+2 D) F-P = C +2 50 / 81 50. A gas mixture that has 5 moles of 02 and 7 moles of nitrogen, has a total pressure of 24Nm-². Calculate the partial pressure of N2 and O2 respectively A) 16, 10 Nm-² B) 10,14 Nm-² C) 14,10 Nm-² D) NOTA 51 / 81 51. Buffer solutions are made by mixing A) Strong acid + salt of strong base B) Weak acid + salt of strong base C) Strong acid + salt of weak base D) NOTA 52 / 81 52. Calculate pOH of 0.3M HCl which is 75% ionized A) 0.133 B) 13.5 C) 1.3 D) 11.2 E) NOTA 53 / 81 53. The vapour pressure of a solution of 20g of non-volatile solute in 150g of water, is 26.5 torr. Calculate the molar mass of the solute, assuming the solution behaves ideally. (Vapor pressure of water at this temperature is 28.065 torr). A) 65g/mol B) 92g/mol C) 43g/mol D) 105.6g/mol. 54 / 81 54. Which of these reactions are second order A) Thermal dissociation of HI B) Saponification C) Hydrogenation of ethane D) AOTA E) NOTA 55 / 81 55. Consider the reaction at a given temperature.CO + H20 <-> CO2 + H2If 0.13 moles of CO, 0.56 moles of H2O, 0.62 moles of CO2 and 0.43 moles of H2 are introduced into a 2 litre flask, what is the equilibrium quotient? Use this to judge the direction the reaction will proceed to reach equilibrium. A) 2.7, reaction proceeds to the left B) 2.7, reaction proceeds to the right C) 3.7, reaction proceeds to the left D) 3.7, reaction proceeds to the right. 56 / 81 56. For most gases, inversion temperature is A) 4 times the critical temperature B) 5 times the critical temperature C) 6 times the critical temperature D) 7 times the critical temperature. 57 / 81 57. Which is true A) Order is always equal to molecularity of the reaction B) Order of an elementary reaction can be a fraction C) Half life of a zero order reaction is (A)o / 2(k)o D) Acid catalyzed hydrolysis of an ester is a 2nd order reaction 58 / 81 58. Which of these is true concerning the relationship of spontaneity of chemical reactions and equilibrium constant. A) When ∆H° is negative and ∆S° is positive, K>1 and the reaction is spontaneous B) When both ∆H and ∆S° are negative, K>1 at sufficiently high temperatures. C) When both ∆H° and ∆S° are positive, K<1 at low temperatures. D) When ∆H° is positive and ∆S° is negative, K<1 and reaction will not be spontaneous. 59 / 81 59. Considering these statementsIdeal gas are liquefied only at very low temperaturesIdeal gases cannot be liquefiedIdeal gas behaviour is observed by real gases at low pressuresIdeal gases do not exist.In the above statements, the correct ones are A) All of the above B) I, II, III C) II, III, IV D) III, IV 60 / 81 60. Given the following thermochemical equations:C(s) + O2 —--> CO2 (-393.5kJ)CO(s) + 1/2O2 —---> CO2 (-283.0kJ)What is the heat of formation of CO? A) -66kJ B) -286kJ C) -110kJ D) -254kJ 61 / 81 61. Calculate the heat of combustion in a constant pressure calorimeter at 25°C, assuming the gases are ideal.CO(g) + 1/2O2(g) —->CO2(g){Heat of combustion of CO in a constant volume calorimeter is -281.88kJ/mol. A) -283.12kJ B) -356.21kJ C) -428.41kJ D) -441.89kJ 62 / 81 62. The two broad classification of Isomerism in organic compounds are A) Cis and trans B) Staggered and eclipsed C) Structural and stereoisomerism D) NOTA 63 / 81 63. The type of single bond fusion where the two electrons go to one atom is A) Homolytic B) Heterolytic C) Compound D) NOTA 64 / 81 64. The geometry of the resulting hybrid orbital from sp3 hybridization is A) Linear B) Trigonal C) Square planar D) Tetrahedral 65 / 81 65. What is the correct name for a molecule that has two amino groups in opposing (para) locations around a benzene ring? A) Benzenediamine B) Benzene-1,4-diamine C) p-Aminoaniline D) 4-Aminobenzenamine 66 / 81 66. When acetamide is converted to methylamine, what is the name of the reaction? A) Friedel-Craft’sreaction B) Hofmannreaction C) Hoffman bromamide degradation reaction D) Hinsberg reaction 67 / 81 67. By reacting with which of the following, primary amines can be separated from secondary and tertiary amines? A) Chloroform alone B) Methyl iodide C) Chloroform and alcoholic KOH D) Zinc dust 68 / 81 68. Which one is the correct order of reactivity of different types of alcohol towards hydrogen halide? A) 1°alcohol>2°alcohol>3°alcoho B) 2°alcohol>1°alcohol>3°alcohol C) 3°alcohol>1°alcohol>2°alcohol D) 3°alcohol>2°alcohol>1°alcohol 69 / 81 69. The dehydration of alcohols is an example of? A) Biomolecular elimination/E2 reaction B) SN2 reaction C) SN1 reaction D) Unimolecular elimination/E1 reaction 70 / 81 70. The major reason that phenol is a better Bronsted acid than cyclohexanol is A) It is a better proton donor B) the cyclohexyl group is an electron donating group by induction, which stabilizes the anion formed in the reaction C) Phenol is able to stabilize the anion formed in the reaction by resonance D) The phenyl group is an electron withdrawing group by induction, which stabilizes the anion formed in the reaction 71 / 81 71. By refluxing unsubstituted amide with acid, it will yield which of the following products? A) ammonia B) carboxylic acid C) nitrogen gas D) ammonia and caroxylic acid 72 / 81 72. Amides may be converted into amines by reaction named after which of the following reaction? A) Perkin B) Claisen C) Hoffmann D) Kolbe 73 / 81 73. Which of the following will not easily undergo Friedel crafts reaction? A) Xylene B) Nitrobenzene C) Cumene D) Toluene 74 / 81 74. Which of the following is the most acidic? A) p-nitrophenol B) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol C) p-creso D) Phenol 75 / 81 75. Catalytic reaction of benzoyl chloride in presence of Pd-BaSo4 yields A) C6H5OH B) C6H5Cl C) C6H5CHO D) C6H5COCH3 76 / 81 76. Select the incorrect statement regarding the boiling points of alkanes A) Boiling point increases with stronger Vander waal's forces B) Surface area is the only factor which determines the boiling point of alkane C) Boiling point of straight chain alkanes is greater than that of branched chain alkanes D) The boiling point of cycloalkanes is always higher than that of linear alkanes 77 / 81 77. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the synthesis of alkenes A) Cracking of a hydrocarbon yields alkenes B) The reactions are exothermic C) Zeolite catalyst helps in the synthesis of alkenes D) The synthesis of alkenes is otherwise known as reforming 78 / 81 78. Choose the correct one which will react faster in the SN2 nucleophilic substitution reaction? A) CH2–CH=CH2=Br B) CH2=CH–CH2–Br C) CH2=CH–CH2=Br D) CH=CH2–CH2–Br 79 / 81 79. What will be the reactivity of chlorobenzene in an electrophilic substitution reaction with benzene? A) Reacts very slowly than benzene B) Reacts in the same way as benzene C) Reacts faster than benzene D) Does not react with benzene 80 / 81 80. Primary amides get converted into primary amines by? A) Addition B) Oxidation C) Reduction D) Acylation 81 / 81 81. Carbonyl compounds especially ketones undergo reduction to form A) Primary alcohols B) Secondary alcohols C) Alkanes D) Alkenes Your score is The average score is 24% 0% Restart quiz
