Christian Medical and Dental Association Test For 024 Class

CMDA Special Academic Quiz (Test 3)

You are welcome special edition of CMDA 024 Biweekly Test. Get ready to test your knowledge and stand chances of winning amazing prices by completing it. It contains MCB, Haemat, Pharm, Chem path and Morbid anatomy. 

Go in God's grace!

It takes courage to come this far. Congratulations. Thank you for participating.


CMDA Bi-weekly Test 3

1 / 100

Category: Microbiology

1. Which of the following has the highest rate of replication

2 / 100

Category: Microbiology

2. Identify the correctly matched option

3 / 100

Category: Microbiology

3. The treatment of Helicobacter pylori infection does not involve

4 / 100

Category: Microbiology

4. Concerning Helicobacter pylori

5 / 100

Category: Microbiology

5. The commonest site of Pott's disease is

6 / 100

Category: Microbiology

6. Clostridium perfringes

7 / 100

Category: Microbiology

7. Concerning leprosy

8 / 100

Category: Microbiology

8. Gram negative bacteria

9 / 100

Category: Microbiology

9. Highest motility is exhibited by

10 / 100

Category: Microbiology

10. Not true concerning Yersinia

11 / 100

Category: Microbiology

11. The following is not used for culturing Shigella

12 / 100

Category: Microbiology

12. The following is a second-line drug in the management of Tuberculosis

13 / 100

Category: Microbiology

13. Which does not belong to the family Enterobacteriaceae

14 / 100

Category: Microbiology

14. The following are lactose fermenters except

15 / 100

Category: Microbiology

15. The following are known for being anaerobic

16 / 100

Category: Microbiology

16. Commercial production of penicillin was done in

17 / 100

Category: Microbiology

17. Ziehl-Nelson stain

18 / 100

Category: Microbiology

18. Identify the incorrect statement about gram staining

19 / 100

Category: Microbiology

19. Woolsorter's disease is caused by

20 / 100

Category: Microbiology

20. The following is associated with bloody diarrhoea except

21 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

21. Tissues that are quiescent in adult mammals but proliferative in response to injury include the following except

22 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

22. Cell types that repair injured tissue by attempting to restore normal structure is which of the following?

23 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

23. Which of these is false

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Category: Uncategorized

24. Larger subcutaneous hematomas best define which of the following

25 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

25. The most important extracellular matrix constituent encountered by platelets after injury of a previously intact endothelium is

26 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

26. Ectopic islands of normal tissue is called

27 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

27. Concerning the spread of malignant neoplasm, which of the following is typical of neoplasms in the peritoneal cavity

28 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

28. Metastasis occurs at what stage of a malignant neoplasm

29 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

29. Examples of type III hypersensitivity include the following except

30 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

30. The deficiency of C3 in the complement system will result to which of these

31 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

31. A 72-year old woman is brought to the hospital with left-sided paralysis consistent with an ischemic infarct of the right cerebral cortex. She dies two days after admission. Which of the following would most likely be seen on microscopic examination on the affect area of the brain?

32 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

32. Cloudy swelling, hydropic change and fatty change are all examples of

33 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

33. Which of these is non-malignant?

34 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

34. The cardinal signs of inflammation includes the following except

35 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

35. The most common primary sites for the origin of Paget's disease are the nipple and the

36 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

36. The progression of acute to chronic inflammation occurs for the following reasons EXCEPT

37 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

37. The following are Giant cells EXCEPT

38 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

38. Paradoxical embolism may occur in the following conditions EXCEPT

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Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

39. The characteristics of transudate does NOT include which of the following

40 / 100

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

40. Which of the following is a possible fate of a thrombus

41 / 100

Category: Haematology

41. Mr Shroud, known to have colonic cancer comes down to the clinic severely pale. Which of the following would relieve the pallor fastest

42 / 100

Category: Haematology

42. An activist shows up for a blood donation. On screening, she is found to have a Bombay blood group. In what manner should her blood be stored to last the longest

43 / 100

Category: Haematology

43. Platelet concentrate is best stored at

44 / 100

Category: Haematology

44. While performing a routine appendectomy, the patient bled beyond what was anticipated. It was discovered that she had been on Warfarin on the morning of the surgery. How best should a warfarin overdose be reversed?

45 / 100

Category: Haematology

45. Which of these is used to treat disseminated intravascular coagulopathy due to its elevated levels of fibrinogen

46 / 100

Category: Haematology

46. Which of these would not be considered an immediate non-immune complication of blood transfusions?

47 / 100

Category: Haematology

47. Which of these is considered the most frequent type of acute transfusion reaction?

48 / 100

Category: Haematology

48. Not correctly matched

49 / 100

Category: Haematology

49. True about erythropoiesis

50 / 100

Category: Haematology

50. Earliest precursor with receptor for erythropoietin

51 / 100

Category: Haematology

51. Clinical features of megaloblastic anemia include all except

52 / 100

Category: Haematology

52. Each megakaryocyte gives rise to

53 / 100

Category: Haematology

53. The effects of thrombopoietin therapy would be observed after

54 / 100

Category: Haematology

54. Red blood cell protein that bears the antigens ,

55 / 100

Category: Haematology

55. The most abundant peripheral protein in the red cell

56 / 100

Category: Haematology

56. Hereditary spherocytosis

57 / 100

Category: Haematology

57. Extramedullary haematopoiesis

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Category: Haematology

58. Hypochromic microcytic anaemia

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Category: Haematology

59. The following coagulation factors are related to haemophilia A and B

60 / 100

Category: Haematology

60. Iron is found in all these except

61 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

61. Zollinger Ellison

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Category: Chemical Pathology

62. Causes of Prehepatic jaundice except

63 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

63. Laboratory findings in Crigler Najjar syndrome

64 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

64. Structural protein of chylomicrons

65 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

65. Concerning Kidney disorders

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Category: Chemical Pathology

66. Concerning Iron metabolism

67 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

67. About iron absorption and transport

68 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

68. Properties of isoenzymes

69 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

69. Which is most likely false concerning point of care testing

70 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

70. About nephrotic syndrome

71 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

71. Which is true about kidney stones

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Category: Chemical Pathology

72. Features of the hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state include the following except

73 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

73. The following enzyme can be used to diagnose prostatic disease

74 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

74. Defective enzyme in porphyria cutanea tarda is

75 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

75. Which of the following is paired incorrectly

76 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

76. False about renal tubular acidosis (RTA)

77 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

77. Jaundice becomes clinically visible when serum bilirubin is greater than

78 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

78. Radiopaque Kidney stones except

79 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

79. Which of these is the correct statement

80 / 100

Category: Chemical Pathology

80. Hypoglycemia

81 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

81. Urinary antiseptics

82 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

82. Which of the following inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase?

83 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

83. Which preparation bypasses absorption?

84 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

84. Which of the following is false?

85 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

85. The following Choline ester is not susceptible to both true and pseudo cholinesterases?

86 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

86. Therapeutic window refers to

87 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

87. Synergism is best illustrated by

88 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

88. Which of the following is not currative

89 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

89. Which of the following is least associated with extrapyramidal side effects

90 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

90. The commonest reason for pharmacotherapeutic failure in clinical practices is

91 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

91. The following are routes of drug administration except

92 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

92. Which of these is incorrectly matched

93 / 100

Category: Uncategorized

93. The following is not a form of tolerance

94 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

94. Toxicity testing does not involve

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Category: Pharmacology

95. Chelation of mercury by dicumarol is a

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Category: Pharmacology

96. Concerning autonomic nervous system

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Category: Pharmacology

97. Identify the correctly matched option

98 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

98. The following are indications for using benzodiazepines except

99 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

99. Which of the following is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

100 / 100

Category: Pharmacology

100. Parkinson's disease

Your score is

The average score is 41%

0%

CMDA Test 2.2

/60

This is CMDA Biweekly Test 2.2. It contains MCB, Chemical Pathology and Pharmacology. God's grace as you proceed.

You've undergone a great task. Congratulations. More grace in your studies!


CMDA Bi-weekly Test 2.2

1 / 60

Category: Microbiology

1) The following statements about leprosy are true except

2 / 60

Category: Microbiology

2) Concerning Dental caries, the following are true except

3 / 60

Category: Microbiology

3)

In laboratory culture and isolation of campylobacter include the following except

4 / 60

Category: Microbiology

4) Which of the following is a Virulence factors of Enterobacteriaceae

5 / 60

Category: Microbiology

5) All are correctly-matched pairs with respect to normal flora and the sites they occur except

6 / 60

Category: Microbiology

6) The following are correctly matched except

7 / 60

Category: Microbiology

7) The following are non-lactose fermenting except

8 / 60

Category: Microbiology

8) The following belong to the family Enterobacteriaceae except

9 / 60

Category: Microbiology

9) These are involved in the pathogenesis of diphtheria except

10 / 60

Category: Microbiology

10) The following systems can be used for isolation of campylobacter except

11 / 60

Category: Microbiology

11) Characteristics of Mycobacteria include the following except

12 / 60

Category: Microbiology

12) Bacterial causes of sorethroat usually include

13 / 60

Category: Microbiology

13) In the pathogenesis of Corynebacterium diphtheriae

14 / 60

Category: Microbiology

14) Campylobacter are

15 / 60

Category: Microbiology

15) Corynebacterium is

16 / 60

Category: Microbiology

16) The following media are best suited for campylobacter isolation except

17 / 60

Category: Microbiology

17) Strept. pyogenes is associated with the following except

18 / 60

Category: Microbiology

18) For laboratory diagnosis of cholera, the following are true except

19 / 60

Category: Microbiology

19) Post streptococcal diseases include

20 / 60

Category: Microbiology

20) The risk factor concerning cholera may include the following except;

21 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

21) Antibiotics inhibiting the bacterial cell wall synthesis are:

22 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

22) Bacteristatic effect is:

23 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

23) Mechanisms of bacterial resistance to anti-microbial agents are the following, EXCEPT:

24 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

24) The volume of distribution (Vd) relates:

25 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

25) Tick the feature of the sublingual route:

26 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

26) Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs through liver is minimized:

27 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

27) What does the term “bioavailability” mean?

28 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

28)


Drug interactions include the following except

29 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

29) Pharmacokinetic drug interaction

30 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

30) Which of the following is/are false concerning phase I clinical studies

31 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

31) About first pass effect of a drug

32 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

32) When is a new drug application usually obtained

33 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

33) Pharmacodynamics interaction include all except

34 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

34) Pharmacokinetic drug interaction can include all except

35 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

35) Which of the following is constant in first order elimination kinetics?

36 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

36) Which of the following is not a parenteral form of drug administration?

37 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

37) Below are the therapeutic indices of 5 drugs. Which of them is the best drug?

38 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

38) Incorrect about phase I

39 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

39) Concerning drug nomenclature, which of the following statements is correct

40 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

40) How many phases are in the clinical stage of drug production

41 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

41) Concerning correction of hyperkalemia

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Category: Chemical Pathology

42) Concerning hyperkalemia which is incorrect

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Category: Chemical Pathology

43) The following are clinical features of dehydration

44 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

44) The following are clinical features of dehydration

45 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

45) Concerning fluid and electrolyte balance in the body

46 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

46)

The following are causes of hypovolemic hyponatremia except

47 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

47) ECF osmolality is maintained mainly by

48 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

48) The plasma osmolality is calculated as

49 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

49) If a current is passed to a strip of cellulose acetate containing a small amount of serum which of the following is most likely going to migrate towards the anode

50 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

50) C3 components of the complement system

51 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

51) In a normal serum electrophoretic pattern, which of the following proteins make up the most obvious band

52 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

52) Beta-gamma fusion following serum protein electrophoresis is seen in

53 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

53) The following is likely to decrease in response to inflammation

54 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

54) The most common site of gouty tophi is

55 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

55) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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Category: Chemical Pathology

56) Characteristic features of gout crystals when viewed under polarized light is

57 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

57) Which of these is true concerning Multiple myeloma

58 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

58) About nephrotic syndrome

59 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

59) Colloid Osmotic effect of plasma is mainly contributed by

60 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

60) The following are produced by the liver except

Your score is

The average score is 53%

0%

CMDA Test 2.1

/40

CMDA Bi weekly Test for 024 2.0

1 / 40

Category: Haematology

1. Primary Immune lymphoid organs Include

2 / 40

Category: Haematology

2. Which of the following cells is involved in humoral Immune response

3 / 40

Category: Haematology

3. Clinical antigens which prevent infectious disease include

4 / 40

Category: Haematology

4. Secondary Immune lymphoid organs Include

5 / 40

Category: Haematology

5. Which of the following will shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the RIGHT:

6 / 40

Category: Haematology

6. Prothrombin time is elevated in deficiency of which of the following

7 / 40

Category: Haematology

7. Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors does NOT include:

8 / 40

Category: Haematology

8. The following factors feature along the common coagulation pathway EXCEPT:

9 / 40

Category: Haematology

9. About haemopoietic stem cells

10 / 40

Category: Haematology

10. Concerning leukemoid reaction

11 / 40

Category: Haematology

11. Concerning iron deficiency

12 / 40

Category: Haematology

12. Which of the following factors enhance iron absorption

13 / 40

Category: Haematology

13. Anaemia of chronic disorders can be caused by the following EXCEPT:

14 / 40

Category: Haematology

14. Haemoglobinopathies include:

15 / 40

Category: Haematology

15. The definition of anaemia has nothing to do with:

16 / 40

Category: Haematology

16. Causes of absent spleen include:

17 / 40

Category: Haematology

17. Causes of Massive Splenomegaly (>20cm) include the following EXCEPT:

18 / 40

Category: Haematology

18. Functions of the spleen include the following EXCEPT:

19 / 40

Category: Haematology

19.

The spleen consists of:

20 / 40

Category: Haematology

20. The spleen is located in the

21 / 40

Category: Haematology

21. In which of the membrane disorder is treatment not usually necessary?

22 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

22. Neurofibrillary tangle is seen in which of the following condition?

23 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

23.

Which of the following is associated with intracellular accumulation

24 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

24. Concerning hemodynamic disorders

25 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

25. The following are not correct

26 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

26.

The pathogenic mechanism of edema in congestive cardiac failure is

27 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

27. The following predisposes to thrombosis

28 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

28. The following are clinical features of shock except

29 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

29. Edema of

30 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

30. Which of the following is a permanent tissue

31 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

31. Concerning tissue classification based on their regenerative capacity

32 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

32. Concerning apoptosis

33 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

33. Concerning metaplasia

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Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

34. Concerning cellular adaption

35 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

35. Concerning hypertrophy which is not correct?

36 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

36.

An investigation of the chest of a 55 year old man shows necrosis secondary to a thrombus in the medium-sized pulmonary artery. This is a form of?

37 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

37. Which of the following predominates at the injury site at 24hrs of tissue damage?

38 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

38. The following is true except?

39 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

39. Which of the following plays the greatest role in arterial thrombosis?

40 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

40.

The pathogenesis of shock in coarctation of aorta involves?

Your score is

The average score is 54%

0%

CMDA Test 1.2

/40

This is the second half of CMDA 024 First Biweekly Test. It contains Haematology and Morbid anatomy.

Go in God's grace!


Christian Medical and Dental Students Association of Nigeria 024 First Pretest 1.2

1 / 40

Category: Haematology

1. Which of the following is false?

2 / 40

Category: Haematology

2. About C-reactive Protein?

3 / 40

Category: Haematology

3. Which of the following determine which foreign substances our immune system will recognise and resist?

4 / 40

Category: Haematology

4. The normal platelet count is?

5 / 40

Category: Haematology

5. Which of the following is false?

6 / 40

Category: Haematology

6. About platelet?

7 / 40

Category: Haematology

7. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa is defective in?

8 / 40

Category: Haematology

8. The surrogate markers of Haematopoietic Stem Cells are?

9 / 40

Category: Haematology

9. In the progenitor cell compartment, the following is correct except?

10 / 40

Category: Haematology

10. Which of the following is wrongly paired?

11 / 40

Category: Haematology

11. About the  inhibition of coagulation?

12 / 40

Category: Haematology

12. The principal RBC glycoprotein is?

13 / 40

Category: Haematology

13. The most abundant RBC peripheral protein?

14 / 40

Category: Haematology

14. Which of the peripheral proteins primarily anchors lipid bilayer to membrane skeleton?

15 / 40

Category: Haematology

15. In which of the membrane disorder is treatment not usually necessary?

16 / 40

Category: Haematology

16. Which of the following is rightly paired?

17 / 40

Category: Haematology

17. Which of the following is false about the methylation of homocysteine to methionine?

18 / 40

Category: Haematology

18. What amount of folate is bound to albumin?

19 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

19. Absorption of folate  is maximal where?

20 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

20. Which of the following is true about folate?

21 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

21. Edema in Congestive Cardiac Failure is a?

22 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

22. Increase in Exudate than in Transudate?

23 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

23. An edema fluid with low protein content?

24 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

24. Which is found both in acute and chronic inflammation?

25 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

25. Which type of inflammatory giant cell is seen in Xanthoma?

26 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

26. Not true about granulomatous inflammation?

27 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

27. Granuloma?

28 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

28. Features of chronic inflammation except?

29 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

29. Which is not a sequela of acute inflammation?

30 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

30. Which pathway of the complement system is initiated by microbes with terminal mannose groups?

31 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

31. What is the right order of event?

I- margination and pavementing
II- Rolling and Adhesion
III-emigration and diapedesis
IV- Normal axial flow

32 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

32. Sources of cell derived mediators?

33 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

33. A chemotactic agent?

34 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

34. Which of these cytokines suppress lymphocyte proliferation?

35 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

35. False about Bradykinin in inflammation?

36 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

36. The severity of  inflammatory reaction may vary depending on the following factors except?

37 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

37. Which of the following is not a cause of inflammation?

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Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

38. Which of the following is false about Chronic inflammation?

39 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

39. Which of the following is false about the vascular events of  acute inflammation?

40 / 40

Category: Morbid Anatomy/Histopathology

40. The most common mechanism that increases vascular permeability is?

Your score is

0%

CMDA Test 1.1

/60

This first test contains questions from the 3 courses: Chemical Pathology, Pharmacology and Microbiology. You have 30 seconds to answer each question. So think critically and give your best answers. God's grace and goodlcuk!

Caring for the whole man; spirit, soul and body (1 Thess. 5:23)

You're doing well. This is a bold step to the attainment of knowledge.


Christian Medical And Dental Association of Nigeria First Clinical Test For 024 Class

1 / 60

Category: Microbiology

1. Which of these is not a beneficial effect of normal flora?

2 / 60

Category: Microbiology

2. The following are factors affecting normal flora except?

3 / 60

Category: Microbiology

3. The following are untrue with respect to normal flora?

4 / 60

Category: Microbiology

4. Where does the Streptococcus mutans adhere to the body site?

5 / 60

Category: Microbiology

5. The following are normal flora seen in the mouth?

6 / 60

Category: Microbiology

6. In naming an organism, the name can be derived from?

7 / 60

Category: Microbiology

7. About autoclaving, which of the following are correct?

8 / 60

Category: Microbiology

8. Which of the following is correct about the holders type process of pasturization?

9 / 60

Category: Microbiology

9. All of the following are sterilization methods except?

10 / 60

Category: Microbiology

10. The following are related but different entities of taxonomy except?

11 / 60

Category: Microbiology

11. Catalase test is positive for all the following except?

12 / 60

Category: Microbiology

12. Taxonomy divides all living things into all but one of the following systems?

13 / 60

Category: Microbiology

13. The following part of the body do not harbor normal flora?

14 / 60

Category: Microbiology

14. Common skin flora among the Staphylocci include?

15 / 60

Category: Microbiology

15. Choose the correct pair?

16 / 60

Category: Microbiology

16. Which of the following is disinfecting rather than sterilizing?

17 / 60

Category: Microbiology

17. The followign enzymes play important roles in the infectious process of microorganism except?

18 / 60

Category: Microbiology

18. Gram staining reagents include the following?

19 / 60

Category: Microbiology

19. Bacterial growth includes the following?

20 / 60

Category: Microbiology

20. All but one are true about disinfection and sterilization?

21 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

21. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its?

22 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

22. Higher efficacy of a drug necessarily confers?

23 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

23. Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to:

24 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

24. Drug administration through the following route is most likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism:

25 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

25. Bioavalability of drug refers to ?

26 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

26. A prodrug is?

27 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

27. Drugs which undergo high degree of first pass metabolism in Liver?

28 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

28. Drugs which undergo high degree of first pass metabolism in liver?

29 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

29. Drug interactions include the following except?

30 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

30. About first pass effect of a drug?

31 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

31. Pharmacokinetic drug interaction can include all except?

32 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

32. Which of the following is not a  parenteral form of drug administration?

33 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

33. Pharmacodynamics interaction include all except

34 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

34. Below are the therapeutic indices of 5 drugs. Which of them is the best drug?

35 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

35. Concerning drug nomenclature, which of the following statements is correct

36 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

36. Hoffman elimination

37 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

37. Which drug undergoes zero order elimination?

38 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

38. Which of these is a CYTP450 inhibitor?

39 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

39. About pharmcodynamics , drugs act

40 / 60

Category: Pharmacology

40. Pharmdynamics?

41 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

41. Which of the following is least likely to be used a chemical pathology specimen

42 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

42. Which of the following Is not a likely use of a biochemical test?

43 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

43. Which of the following is considered a specialized test in chemical ?

44 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

44. The highest personeel in a chemical pathology lab?

45 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

45. Choose best answer every chemical pathology lab is expected to have it’s own?

46 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

46. Reference interval Usually includes?

 

47 / 60

Category: Chemical Pathology

47. Distribution used in obtaining reference intervals?

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48. Reference interval is obtained with a minimum of?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

49. In a normal gaussian curve 95% of values falls within?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

50. In a normal gaussian curve 95% of values falls within?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

51. Urinary buffers include?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

52. Materials  required for blood specimen collection should be clearely labelled with?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

53. Physiological Ph of blood

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Category: Chemical Pathology

54. Physiological buffers?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

55. Metabolic acidosis?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

56. Least likely to cause metabolic acidosis?

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57. Not true about compensation of metabolic acidosis?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

58.

True about compensation for respiratory acidosis?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

59. Most prevalent cation in the body?

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Category: Chemical Pathology

60. As a doctor, which of the following would make you think least of hypercalcemia?

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